3/4 of all married couples have more than one child. 2/5 of all married couples have more than 3 children. What fraction of all married couples have 2 or 3 children?
A) 1/5
B) 1/4
C) 7/20
D) 3/5
E) Cannot be determined
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the above question is from the Question Bank for Guide 2, FDP (question 5). The answer provided is 7/20. I am confused as to why the answer can be determined. We are not told that no married couples have 0 children; without knowing this proportion, how can we say anything definitive about what proportion of married couples have 2 or 3? I was nearly sure that considering the possibility of '0' was an embedded trick in this problem. Please advise. Is the wording of this problem inappropriately vague? Would we see a problem on the GMAT such as this one which requires an assumption as this one appears to require? Thanks! (sorry if I'm missing something obvious... very late here.)